by Femi Aribisala
But listen instead to Isaiah: “Let grace be shown to the wicked, yet he will not learn righteousness; in the land of uprightness he will deal unjustly, and will not behold the majesty of the LORD.” (Isaiah 26:10). This means Paul is talking rubbish.
Christians are brainwashed in churches not to think but to foolishly follow whatever our pastors tell us. We are hoodwinked into believing all things. (1 Corinthians 13:7). As a result, when we are shown contradictions in the bible, we resort to ungodly insults and claim those who identify them don’t have the Holy Spirit. But our God is a logical God. He says to us: “Come now, and let us reason together.” (Isaiah 1:18).
So let us put on our reasoning faculties and address some basic issues of our faith. Can a man be righteous? Paul says no: “There is none righteous, no, not one.” (Romans 3:10). This falsehood is accepted as an article of faith by Christians. However, Paul’s position is irrelevant.
Many are righteous
The righteous, who Paul claims are nonexistent, are referred to over 139 times in the bible. God declares many people to be righteous, including Noah, Job and Ezekiel. Jesus contradicts Paul by saying there are “many righteous men.” (Matthew 13:17). He declares Abel to be righteous (Matthew 23:35) and says there are “just persons who need no repentance.” (Luke 15:7). Jesus himself is a man and he is righteous. John refers to him as “Jesus Christ the righteous.” (1 John 2:1).
If man cannot be righteous, Jesus would not call us to righteousness. He says: “Blessed are those who hunger and thirst for righteousness, for they shall be filled.” (Matthew 5:6). This means those who strive for righteousness will become righteous. But Paul says it is impossible for a man to be righteous. He then develops a bogus doctrine that we shall nevertheless be considered righteous even though we are not: “(Righteousness) shall be imputed to us who believe in Him who raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead.” (Romans 4:24).
Useless righteousness
This “imputed righteousness” is practically useless. Imagine a situation where, instead of having medical students go through a rigorous ten-year study program in order to become surgeons, we simply impute to them the qualification to be surgeons. Would you want an imputed surgeon to perform a heart-transplant on you? Certainly not! You would rather have a real surgeon do it. That is the difference between the righteousness Paul talks about and the righteousness Jesus talks about.
Imputed righteousness is a complete waste of time. It does not impede sinfulness and it does not promote righteousness.
The righteousness of God that Jesus calls us to is not imputed. It is the genuine article. Jesus says: “Love your enemies, bless those who curse you, do good to those who hate you, and pray for those who spitefully use you and persecute you, that you may be sons of your Father in heaven.” (Matthew 5:44-45). There is nothing imputed here but the real deal. Jesus calls us to the very righteousness of God. He says: “Be perfect, therefore, as your heavenly Father is perfect.” (Matthew 5:48).
However, Paul calls us to the imputed righteousness of Abraham. He erroneously classifies this as the righteousness of faith, another term for his imputed righteousness. But God told Isaac Abraham’s righteousness was of works: “Abraham obeyed my voice and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.” (Genesis 26:5). Jesus repeats this to the Jews: “If you were Abraham’s children, you would do the works of Abraham.” (John 8:39).
But Paul insists Abraham’s righteousness was of faith without works: “If Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. For what does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness” (Romans 4:2-3). “Therefore it is of faith that it might be according to grace, so that the promise might be sure to all the seed, not only to those who are of the law, but also to those who are of the faith of Abraham, who is the father of us all.” (Romans 4:16).
However, this is not true according to Jesus. In Jesus’ doctrine, Abraham is not our father; we have no other Father but God. Jesus says: “Do not call anyone on earth your father; for One is your Father, He who is in heaven.” (Matthew 23:9). Everything about Jesus is “God-ward” and not “man-ward.” He is asking us for a complete change of value-orientation and family. We are not sons of Abraham. We are sons of God. We are not going to “Abraham’s bosom” (Luke 16:22). We are going to “the bosom of the Father.” (John 1:18).
Sinful righteousness
Both the imputed righteousness of Abraham and the imputed righteousness of today’s Christians are practically useless. Abraham committed adultery after the righteousness of God was allegedly imputed to him: he slept with his house-help, Haggai. Christians commit adultery after Paul’s righteousness of faith is imputed to us. Imputed righteousness is a complete waste of time. It does not impede sinfulness and it does not promote righteousness.
In Paul’s false doctrine, we don’t have to be righteous. However, we are deemed righteous because we believe Jesus died for our sins. In which case, our righteousness is bogus. It is not based on our behaviour or conduct. It is based entirely on “the grace of God.” But listen instead to Isaiah: “Let grace be shown to the wicked, yet he will not learn righteousness; in the land of uprightness he will deal unjustly, and will not behold the majesty of the LORD.” (Isaiah 26:10). This means Paul is talking rubbish.
Thanks to Paul, Martin Luther can write this kind of heresy and still claim to be a disciple of Jesus: “Be a sinner, and let your sins be strong, but let your faith in Christ be stronger, and rejoice in Christ who is the victor over sin, death, and the world. This life is not a place where righteousness can exist. No sin can separate us from Him, even if we were to kill or commit adultery a thousand times each day.” This means in Paul’s imputed righteousness, sin is graciously condoned.
Righteousness of God
However, Jesus’ righteousness of God is a different matter. Unlike Paul, who claims God has reconciled himself to our sins, not imputing our trespasses to us (2 Corinthians 5:19); Jesus maintains our sins are unacceptable: “If your right eye causes you to sin, pluck it out and cast it from you; for it is more profitable for you that one of your members perish, than for your whole body to be cast into hell.” (Matthew 5:29).
The righteousness of God that Jesus calls us to is attainable. We attain it by following Jesus’ example in laying down our life. That is the message of the cross. According to Jesus, man’s love of life is the basis of all sin. We steal, cheat, fight, kill and commit adultery in order to save our lives. But the man who loves his enemies, and lays down his life by turning the other cheek does not sin. Jesus says: “He who hates his life in this world will keep it for eternal life.” (John 12:25). “Whoever loses his life for my sake and the gospel’s will save it.” (Mark 8:35).
Christians persist in the heinous sin of the love of life, while deluding ourselves that we have the righteousness of Christ. But no man can overcome sin without losing his life.
Speaking about contradictions in the bible, you cannot single out just Paul. What about Matthew and Luke; there are over 100 contradictions in the bible. I see most of the apostles and disciples as tale bearers
Well done sir! We must contend for this precious faith!
Title: RE: Femi Aribisala: Apostle Paul’s position on righteousness is highly irrelevant
Sincerely, it takes more than human brilliance and intellect to study bible. Studying spiritual things or words with human mind will always lead to error. Romans 2:21 says “Thou therefore which teachest another, teachest thou not thyself?” thou that preachest a man should not steal, dost thou steal…”.
What i’m pointing out here is that, before concluding on attacking the gospel of Paul, why didn’t you study Romans 1,2,3 intensively? For every statement in the Bible, there is always a reason, and to understand better, it’s advisable to the preceding and succeeding chapters to have a full grasp of what the writer is saying.
“Somebody quoting a book cannot understand what is being quoted better that the writer”.
With all due respect, you are misquoting Paul. What Paul meant was in Romans 3:8-11. But it takes more than human soul to interpret these chapters.
Romans 3:5-6 says “But if our unrighteousness commends the righteousness of God, what shall we say?” Is God unrighteous who taketh vengeance? (I speak as a man)”.
Romans 3:7 says “For if the truth of God hath more abounded through my lie unto his glory; why yet am I also judged as a sinner?”.
Paul uses the two verses above to explain that “THE END DOES NOT JUSTIFY THE MEANS”. God is more concerned with the “WAY” that the “ACT”. God focused more on “How you get it done” and not “What you did”. In verse 7, what he was saying was that “even if he uses a lie to glorify and abound the truth of God, no reward for such gospel.”
Romans 3:8: “… And not rather, (as we be slanderously reported, and as some affirm that we say,) Let us do evil, that good may comes?” whose damnation is just.”
In verse 8, that’s where he made the whole issue clear. Note this line: ” as we be slanderously reported”. Slanderously in dictionary means “harmful and often untrue use of statements; tending to discredit or malign”. That means some people (opponents of the gospel) are reporting some untrue and discredit statements against him. The second statement “…and as some affirm that we say,) Let us do evil, that good may come?”. Can you see that? Paul cannot say something and go against it himself.
Have you studied your bible to know that Paul was a high-caliber lawyer? Educated and also understood human philosophy as you do? He was trained to use words. So he can’t be misquoting himself.
Verse 10 that you are misquoting is a statement explaining what Paul was saying in Romans 3:9 and Romans 3:11. Romans 3:9 says “What then?
Are we better that they? No, in no wise: for we have ‘BEFORE’ proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sins;”
Can you see the word ‘BEFORE’ there? What does BEFORE means? Past. Do you remember Saul(Paul) of Tarsus? Do you know that Paul was killing Christians BEFORE when he was Saul? Do you remember that Paul (formerly Saul) was the leader where Stephen was stoned? When Paul said ‘BEFORE’ where do you think he was referring to? his Future, his present, or his past?
He said in 3:9-11 that “(9)…for we have ‘BEFORE’ proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sins; (10)As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one: (11) There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God”.
PAUL WAS REFERRING TO HIS STATEMENT WHEN HE WAS PAUL OF TARSUS. When He was an Unbeliever. When he was persecuting the church.
So Mr. Femi Aribisala, before you share this kind of blasphemous stories against Bible and his Servants again on internet, please do proper research. Do you even remember that Paul wrote about 2/3 of the New Testament? Why would judge a man that wrote about 2/3 of New Testament because of a statement? And you are now injecting some diluted, anti-gospel statements and verses to cover-up, divert and blindfold the readers.
SO THAT YOUR STATEMENT IS WHOLLY WRONG!
And remember, because some pastors that were not called are misbehaving around, doesn’t mean that genuine pastors do not exists again. If you can see the fake, it indicates the original exists somewhere.
Ilori Olukayode
Sincerely, it takes more than human brilliance and intellect
to study bible. Studying spiritual things or words with human mind will always
lead to error. Romans 2:21 says “Thou therefore which teachest another,
teachest thou not thyself?” thou that preachest a man should not steal,
dost thou steal…”.
What i’m pointing out here is that, before concluding on
attacking the gospel of Paul, why didn’t you study Romans 1,2,3 intensively?
For every statement in the Bible, there is always a reason, and to understand
better its advisable to the preceding and succeeding chapter to have a full
grasp of what the writer is saying.
“Somebody quoting a book cannot understand what is
being quoted better that the writer”.
With all due respect, you are misquoting Paul. What Paul
meant was in Romans 3:8-11. But it takes more than human soul to interpret
these chapters.
Romans 3:5-6 says “But if our unrighteousness commends
the righteousness of God, what shall we say?” Is God unrighteous who
taketh vengeance? (I speak as a man)”
Romans 3:7 says “For if the truth of God hath more
abounded through my lie unto his glory; why yet am I also judged as a
sinner?”.
Paul uses the two verses above to explain that “THE END
DOES NOT JUSTIFY THE MEANS”. God is more concern with the “WAY”
than the “ACT”. God focused more on “How you get it done”
and not “What you did”. In verse 7, what he was saying was that
“even if he uses a lie to glorify and abound the truth of God, no reward
for such gospel.”
Romans 3:8: “… And not rather, (as we be slanderously
reported, and as some affirm that we say,) Let us do evil, that good may
comes?” whose damnation is just.”
In verse 8, that’s where he made the whole issue clear. Note
this line: ” as we be slanderously reported”. Slanderously in
dictionary means “harmful and often untrue use of statements; tending to discredit or malign”. That
means some people (opponents of the gospel) are reporting some untrue and
discredit statements against him.
The second statement “…and as some affirm that we
say,) Let us do evil, that good may come?”. Can you see that? Paul cannot say something
and go against it himself.
Have you studied your bible to know that Paul was a high-caliber
lawyer? Educated and also understood human philosophy as you do? He was trained
to use words. So he can’t be misquoting himself.
Verse 10 that you are misquoting is a statement explaining
what Paul was saying in Romans 3:9 and Romans 3:11. Romans 3:9 says “What
then? Are we better that they? No, in no wise: for we have ‘BEFORE’ proved both
Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sins;”
Can you see ‘BEFORE’ there? What does BEFORE means? Past. Do
you remember Saul(Paul) of Tarsus? Do you know that Paul was killing Christians
BEFORE when he was saul?
Do you remember that Paul (formerly Saul) was the leader
where Stephen was stoned? When Paul said ‘BEFORE’ where do you think he was
referring to? his Future, his present, or his past?
He said in 3:9-11 that “(9)…for we have ‘BEFORE’
proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sins; (10)As it is
written, There is none righteous, no, not one: (11) There is none that
understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God”.
PAUL WAS REFERRING TO HIS STATEMENT WHEN HE WAS PAUL OF
TARSUS. When He was an Unbeliever. When
he was persecuting the church. So Mr.
Femi Aribisala, before you share this kind of blasphemous stories against Bible
and his Servants again on internet, please do proper research. Do you even
remember that Paul wrote about 2/3 of the New Testament? Why would judge a man
that wrote about 2/3 of New Testament because of a statement? And you are now
injecting some diluted, anti-gospel statements and verses to cover-up, divert
and blindfold the readers.
SO THAT YOUR STATEMENT IS WHOLLY WRONG!
And remember, because some pastors that were not called are
misbehaving around, doesn’t mean that genuine pastors do not exists again. If
you can see the fake, it indicates the original exists somewhere.
Sincerely, it takes more than human brilliance and intellect to study bible. Studying spiritual things or words with human mind will always lead to error. Romans 2:21 says "Thou therefore which teachest another, teachest thou not thyself?" thou that preachest a man should not steal, dost thou steal…".
What i'm pointing out here is that, before concluding on attacking the gospel of Paul, why didn't you study Romans 1,2,3 intensively? For every statement in the Bible, there is always a reason, and to understand better its advisable to the preceding and succeeding chapter to have a full grasp of what the writer is saying.
"Somebody quoting a book cannot understand what is being quoted better that the writer".
With all due respect, you are misquoting Paul. What Paul meant was in Romans 3:8-11. But it takes more than human soul to interpret these chapters.
Romans 3:5-6 says "But if our unrighteousness commends the righteousness of God, what shall we say?" Is God unrighteous who taketh vengeance? (I speak as a man)"
Romans 3:7 says "For if the truth of God hath more abounded through my lie unto his glory; why yet am I also judged as a sinner?".
Paul uses the two verses above to explain that "THE END DOES NOT JUSTIFY THE MEANS". God is more concern with the "WAY" than the "ACT". God focused more on "How you get it done" and not "What you did". In verse 7, what he was saying was that "even if he uses a lie to glorify and abound the truth of God, no reward for such gospel."
Romans 3:8: "… And not rather, (as we be slanderously reported, and as some affirm that we say,) Let us do evil, that good may comes?" whose damnation is just."
In verse 8, that's where he made the whole issue clear. Note this line: " as we be slanderously reported". Slanderously in dictionary means "harmful and often untrue use of statements; tending to discredit or malign". That means some people (opponents of the gospel) are reporting some untrue and discredit statements against him.
The second statement "…and as some affirm that we say,) Let us do evil, that good may come?". Can you see that? Paul cannot say something and go against it himself.
Have you studied your bible to know that Paul was a high-caliber lawyer? Educated and also understood human philosophy as you do? He was trained to use words. So he can't be misquoting himself.
Verse 10 that you are misquoting is a statement explaining what Paul was saying in Romans 3:9 and Romans 3:11. Romans 3:9 says "What then? Are we better that they? No, in no wise: for we have 'BEFORE' proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sins;"
Can you see 'BEFORE' there? What does BEFORE means? Past. Do you remember Saul(Paul) of Tarsus? Do you know that Paul was killing Christians BEFORE when he was saul?
Do you remember that Paul (formerly Saul) was the leader where Stephen was stoned? When Paul said 'BEFORE' where do you think he was referring to? his Future, his present, or his past?
He said in 3:9-11 that "(9)…for we have 'BEFORE' proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sins; (10)As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one: (11) There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God".
PAUL WAS REFERRING TO HIS STATEMENT WHEN HE WAS PAUL OF TARSUS. When He was an Unbeliever. When he was persecuting the church. So Mr. Femi Aribisala, before you share this kind of blasphemous stories against Bible and his Servants again on internet, please do proper research. Do you even remember that Paul wrote about 2/3 of the New Testament? Why would judge a man that wrote about 2/3 of New Testament because of a statement? And you are now injecting some diluted, anti-gospel statements and verses to cover-up, divert and blindfold the readers.
SO THAT YOUR STATEMENT IS WHOLLY WRONG!
And remember, because some pastors that were not called are misbehaving around, doesn't mean that genuine pastors do not exists again. If you can see the fake, it indicates the original exists somewhere.
Sincerely, it takes more than human brilliance and intellect to study bible. Studying spiritual things or words with human mind will always lead to error. Romans 2:21
says "Thou therefore which teachest another, teachest thou not thyself?" thou that preachest a man should not steal, dost thou steal…".
What i'm pointing out here is that, before concluding on attacking the gospel of Paul, why didn't you study Romans 1,2,3 intensively? For every statement in the Bible,
there is always a reason, and to understand better its advisable to the preceeding and succeeding chapter to have a full grasp of what the writer is saying.
"Somebody quoting a book cannot understand what is being quoted better that the writer".
With all due respect, you are misquoting Paul. What Paul meant was in Romans 3:8-11. But it takes more than human soul to interpret these chapters.
Romans 3:5-6 says "But if our unrighteousness commend the righteousness of God, what shall we say?" Is God unrighteous who taketh vengeance? (I speak as a man)"
Romans 3:7 says "For if the truth of God hath more abounded through my lie unto his glory; why yet am I also judged as a sinner?".
Paul uses the two verses above to explain that "THE END DOES NOT JUSTIFY THE MEANS". God is more concern with the "WAY" than the "ACT". God focused more on "How you
get it done" and not "What you did". In verse 7, what he was saying was that "even if he uses a lie to glorify and abound the truth of God, no reward for such gospel."
Romans 3:8: "… And not rather, (as we be slanderously reported, and as some affirm that we say,) Let us do evil, that good may comes?" whose damnation is just."
In verse 8, that's where he made the whole issue clear. Note this line: "as we be slanderously reported". Slanderously in dictionary means "harmful and often untrue
use of statements; tending to discredit or malign". That means some people (opponents of the gospel) are reporting some untrue and discredit statements against him.
The second statement "…and as some affirm that we say,) Let us do evil, that good may come?". Can you see that? Paul cannot say something and go against it himself.
Have you studied your bible to know that Paul was a high-calibre lawyer? Educated and also understood human philosophy as you do? He was trained to use words. So he
can't be misquote himself.
Verse 10 that you are misquoting is a statement explaining what Paul was saying in Romans 3:9 and Romans 3:11.
Romand 3:9 says "What then? are we better that they? No, in no wise: for we have 'BEFORE' proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sins;"
Can you see 'BEFORE' there? What does BEFORE means? Past. Do you remember Saul(Paul) of Tarsus? Do you know that Paul was killing christians BEFORE when he was saul?
Do you remember that Paul(formerly Saul) was the leader where Stephen was stoned? When Paul said 'BEFORE' where do you think he was referring to? his Future, his
present, or his past?
He said in 3:9-11 that "(9)…for we have 'BEFORE' proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sins; (10)As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not
one: (11) There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God".
PAUL WAS REFERRING TO HIS STATEMENT WHEN HE WAS PAUL OF TARSUS. When He was an Unbeliever. When he was persecuting the church. So Mr. Femi Aribisala, before you share
this kind of blasphemous stories against Bible and his Servants again on internet, please do proper research. Do you even remember that Paul wrote about 2/3 of the New
Testament? Why would judge a man that wrote about 2/3 of New Testament because of a statement? And you are now injecting some diluted, anti-gospel statements and verses to cover-up, divert and blindfold the readers.
SO THAT YOUR STATEMENT IS WHOLLY WRONG!
And remember, because some pastors that were not called are misbehaving around, doesn't mean that genuine pastors do not exists again. If you can see the fake, it
indicates the original exists somewhere.
Femi Aribisala: Apostle Paul’s position on righteousness is highly irrelevant
Sincerely, it takes more than human brilliance and intellect to study bible. Studying spiritual things or words with human mind will always lead to error. Romans 2:21
says “Thou therefore which teachest another, teachest thou not thyself?” thou that preachest a man should not steal, dost thou steal…”.
What i’m pointing out here is that, before concluding on attacking the gospel of Paul, why didn’t you study Romans 1,2,3 intensively? For every statement in the Bible,
there is always a reason, and to understand better its advisable to study the preceeding and succeeding chapter to have a full grasp of what the writer is saying.
“Somebody quoting a book cannot understand what is being quoted better that the writer”.
With all due respect, you are misquoting Paul. What Paul meant was in Romans 3:8-11. But it takes more than human soul to interpret these chapters.
Romans 3:5-6 says “But if our unrighteousness commend the righteousness of God, what shall we say?” Is God unrighteous who taketh vengeance? (I speak as a man)”
Romans 3:7 says “For if the truth of God hath more abounded through my lie unto his glory; why yet am I also judged as a sinner?”.
Paul uses the two verses above to explain that “THE END DOES NOT JUSTIFY THE MEANS”. God is more concern with the “WAY” than the “ACT”. God focused more on “How you
get it done” and not “What you did”. In verse 7, what he was saying was that “even if he uses a lie to glory and abound the truth of God, no reward for such gospel.”
Romans 3:8: “… And not rather, (as we be slanderously reported, and as some affirm that we say,) Let us do evil, that good may comes?” whose damnation is just.”
In verse 8, that’s where he made the whole issue clear. Note this line: “…And not rather, (as we be slanderously reported”. Slanderously in dictionary means “harmful and often untrue used of statements; tending to discredit or malign”. That means some people (opponents of the gospel) are reporting some untrue and discredit statements against him.
The second statement “…and as some affirm that we say,) Let us do evil, that good may come?”. Can you see that? Paul cannot say something and go against it himself.
Have you studied your bible to know that Paul was a high-calibre lawyer? Educated and also understood human philosophy as you do? He was trained to use words. So he
can’t be misquote himself.
Verse 10 that you are misquoting is a statement explaining what Paul was saying in Romans 3:9 and Romans 3:11.
Romand 3:9 says “What then? are we better that they? No, in no wise: for we have ‘BEFORE’ proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sins;”
Can you see the word ‘BEFORE’ there? What does BEFORE means? Past. Do you remember Saul(Paul) of Tarsus? Do you know that Paul was killing christians BEFORE, when he was Saul?
Do you remember that Paul(formerly Saul) was the leader where Stephen was stoned? When Paul said ‘BEFORE’ where do you think he was referring to? his Future, his
present, or his past? That statement you misquote was a reference. Referring to his past. He used that to tell us his past so that we can learn from him, and also not to present himself more holy than others. That he was once persecuting churches and gospels when he was Saul of Tarsus.
He said in 3:9-11 that “(9)…for we have ‘BEFORE’ proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sins; (10)As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not
one: (11) There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God”.
PAUL WAS REFERRING TO HIS WORDS WHEN HE WAS SAUL OF TARSUS. When He was an Unbeliever. When he was persecuting the church. So Mr. Femi Aribisala, before you share
this kind of blaspheme stories against Bible and his Servants again on internet, please do proper research. Do you even remember that Paul wrote about 2/3 of the New
Testament? Why would you judge a man that wrote such volumes of books because of a statement? And you are now injecting some blaspheme statements and verses to cover
up, divert and blindfold the readers.
YOUR STATEMENT IS WHOLLY WRONG!
And remember, because some pastors that were not called are misbehaving around, doesn’t mean that genuine pastors do not exists again. If you can see the fake, it
indicates the original exists somewhere.
Thanks so much.
Sincerely, it takes more than human brilliance and intellect to study bible. Studying spiritual things or words with human mind will always lead to error. Romans 2:21
says “Thou therefore which teachest another, teachest thou not thyself?” thou that preachest a man should not steal, dost thou steal…”.
What i’m pointing out here is that, before concluding on attacking the gospel of Paul, why didn’t you study Romans 1,2,3 intensively? For every statement in the Bible,
there is always a reason, and to understand better its advisable to study the preceeding and succeeding chapter to have a full grasp of what the writer is saying.
“Somebody quoting a book cannot understand what is being quoted better that the writer”.
With all due respect, you are misquoting Paul. What Paul meant was in Romans 3:8-11. But it takes more than human soul to interpret these chapters.
Romans 3:5-6 says “But if our unrighteousness commend the righteousness of God, what shall we say?” Is God unrighteous who taketh vengeance? (I speak as a man)”
Romans 3:7 says “For if the truth of God hath more abounded through my lie unto his glory; why yet am I also judged as a sinner?”.
Paul uses the two verses above to explain that “THE END DOES NOT JUSTIFY THE MEANS”. God is more concern with the “WAY” than the “ACT”. God focused more on “How you
get it done” and not “What you did”. In verse 7, what he was saying was that “even if he uses a lie to glory and abound the truth of God, no reward for such gospel.”
Romans 3:8: “… And not rather, (as we be slanderously reported, and as some affirm that we say,) Let us do evil, that good may comes?” whose damnation is just.”
In verse 8, that’s where he made the whole issue clear. Note this line: “…And not rather, (as we be slanderously reported”. Slanderously in dictionary means “harmful and often untrue used of statements; tending to discredit or malign”. That means some people (opponents of the gospel) are reporting some untrue and discredit statements against him.
The second statement “…and as some affirm that we say,) Let us do evil, that good may come?”. Can you see that? Paul cannot say something and go against it himself.
Have you studied your bible to know that Paul was a high-calibre lawyer? Educated and also understood human philosophy as you do? He was trained to use words. So he
can’t be misquote himself.
Verse 10 that you are misquoting is a statement explaining what Paul was saying in Romans 3:9 and Romans 3:11.
Romand 3:9 says “What then? are we better that they? No, in no wise: for we have ‘BEFORE’ proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sins;”
Can you see the word ‘BEFORE’ there? What does BEFORE means? Past. Do you remember Saul(Paul) of Tarsus? Do you know that Paul was killing christians BEFORE, when he was Saul?
Do you remember that Paul(formerly Saul) was the leader where Stephen was stoned? When Paul said ‘BEFORE’ where do you think he was referring to? his Future, his
present, or his past? That statement you misquote was a reference. Referring to his past. He used that to tell us his past so that we can learn from him, and also not to present himself more holy than others. That he was once persecuting churches and gospels when he was Saul of Tarsus.
He said in 3:9-11 that “(9)…for we have ‘BEFORE’ proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sins; (10)As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not
one: (11) There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God”.
PAUL WAS REFERRING TO HIS WORDS WHEN HE WAS SAUL OF TARSUS. When He was an Unbeliever. When he was persecuting the church. So Mr. Femi Aribisala, before you share
this kind of blaspheme stories against Bible and his Servants again on internet, please do proper research. Do you even remember that Paul wrote about 2/3 of the New
Testament? Why would you judge a man that wrote such volumes of books because of a statement? And you are now injecting some blaspheme statements and verses to cover
up, divert and blindfold the readers.
YOUR STATEMENT IS WHOLLY WRONG!
And remember, because some pastors that were not called are misbehaving around, doesn’t mean that genuine pastors do not exists again. If you can see the fake, it
indicates the original exists somewhere.
Thanks so much.
Sincerely, it takes more than human brilliance and intellect to study bible. Studying spiritual things or words with human mind will always lead to error. Romans 2:21
says "Thou therefore which teachest another, teachest thou not thyself?" thou that preachest a man should not steal, dost thou steal…".
What i'm pointing out here is that, before concluding on attacking the gospel of Paul, why didn't you study Romans 1,2,3 intensively? For every statement in the Bible,
there is always a reason, and to understand better its advisable to study the preceeding and succeeding chapter to have a full grasp of what the writer is saying.
"Somebody quoting a book cannot understand what is being quoted better that the writer".
With all due respect, you are misquoting Paul. What Paul meant was in Romans 3:8-11. But it takes more than human soul to interpret these chapters.
Romans 3:5-6 says "But if our unrighteousness commend the righteousness of God, what shall we say?" Is God unrighteous who taketh vengeance? (I speak as a man)"
Romans 3:7 says "For if the truth of God hath more abounded through my lie unto his glory; why yet am I also judged as a sinner?".
Paul uses the two verses above to explain that "THE END DOES NOT JUSTIFY THE MEANS". God is more concern with the "WAY" than the "ACT". God focused more on "How you
get it done" and not "What you did". In verse 7, what he was saying was that "even if he uses a lie to glory and abound the truth of God, no reward for such gospel."
Romans 3:8: "… And not rather, (as we be slanderously reported, and as some affirm that we say,) Let us do evil, that good may comes?" whose damnation is just."
In verse 8, that's where he made the whole issue clear. Note this line: "…And not rather, (as we be slanderously reported". Slanderously in dictionary means "harmful and often untrue used of statements; tending to discredit or malign". That means some people (opponents of the gospel) are reporting some untrue and discredit statements against him.
The second statement "…and as some affirm that we say,) Let us do evil, that good may come?". Can you see that? Paul cannot say something and go against it himself.
Have you studied your bible to know that Paul was a high-calibre lawyer? Educated and also understood human philosophy as you do? He was trained to use words. So he
can't be misquote himself.
Verse 10 that you are misquoting is a statement explaining what Paul was saying in Romans 3:9 and Romans 3:11.
Romand 3:9 says "What then? are we better that they? No, in no wise: for we have 'BEFORE' proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sins;"
Can you see the word 'BEFORE' there? What does BEFORE means? Past. Do you remember Saul(Paul) of Tarsus? Do you know that Paul was killing christians BEFORE, when he was Saul?
Do you remember that Paul(formerly Saul) was the leader where Stephen was stoned? When Paul said 'BEFORE' where do you think he was referring to? his Future, his
present, or his past? That statement you misquote was a reference. Referring to his past. He used that to tell us his past so that we can learn from him, and also not to present himself more holy than others. That he was once persecuting churches and gospels when he was Saul of Tarsus.
He said in 3:9-11 that "(9)…for we have 'BEFORE' proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sins; (10)As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not
one: (11) There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God".
PAUL WAS REFERRING TO HIS WORDS WHEN HE WAS SAUL OF TARSUS. When He was an Unbeliever. When he was persecuting the church. So Mr. Femi Aribisala, before you share
this kind of blaspheme stories against Bible and his Servants again on internet, please do proper research. Do you even remember that Paul wrote about 2/3 of the New
Testament? Why would you judge a man that wrote such volumes of books because of a statement? And you are now injecting some blaspheme statements and verses to cover
up, divert and blindfold the readers.
YOUR STATEMENT IS WHOLLY WRONG!
And remember, because some pastors that were not called are misbehaving around, doesn't mean that genuine pastors do not exists again. If you can see the fake, it
indicates the original exists somewhere.
Thanks so much.
Sincerely, it takes more than human brilliance and intellect to study bible. Studying spiritual things or words with human mind will always lead to error. Romans 2:21
says “Thou therefore which teachest another, teachest thou not thyself?” thou that preachest a man should not steal, dost thou steal…”.
What i’m pointing out here is that, before concluding on attacking the gospel of Paul, why didn’t you study Romans 1,2,3 intensively? For every statement in the Bible,
there is always a reason, and to understand better its advisable to study the preceding and succeeding chapter to have a full grasp of what the writer is saying.
“Somebody quoting a book cannot understand what is being quoted better that the writer”.
With all due respect, you are misquoting Paul. What Paul meant was in Romans 3:8-11. But it takes more than human soul to interpret these chapters.
Romans 3:5-6 says “But if our unrighteousness commend the righteousness of God, what shall we say?” Is God unrighteous who taketh vengeance? (I speak as a man)”
Romans 3:7 says “For if the truth of God hath more abounded through my lie unto his glory; why yet am I also judged as a sinner?”.
Paul uses the two verses above to explain that “THE END DOES NOT JUSTIFY THE MEANS”. God is more concern with the “WAY” than the “ACT”. God focused more on “How you
get it done” and not “What you did”. In verse 7, what he was saying was that “even if he uses a lie to glory and abound the truth of God, no reward for such gospel.”
Romans 3:8: “… And not rather, (as we be slanderously reported, and as some affirm that we say,) Let us do evil, that good may comes?” whose damnation is just.”
In verse 8, that’s where he made the whole issue clear. Note this line: “…And not rather, (as we be slanderously reported”. Slanderously in dictionary means “harmful and often untrue used of statements; tending to discredit or malign”. That means some people (opponents of the gospel) are reporting some untrue and discredit statements against him.
The second statement “…and as some affirm that we say,) Let us do evil, that good may come?”. Can you see that? Paul cannot say something and go against it himself.
Have you studied your bible to know that Paul was a high-caliber lawyer? Educated and also understood human philosophy as you do? He was trained to use words. So he
can’t be misquote himself.
Verse 10 that you are misquoting is a statement explaining what Paul was saying in Romans 3:9 and Romans 3:11.
Romans 3:9 says “What then? are we better that they? No, in no wise: for we have ‘BEFORE’ proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sins;”
Can you see the word ‘BEFORE’ there? What does BEFORE means? Past. Do you remember Saul(Paul) of Tarsus? Do you know that Paul was killing Christians BEFORE, when he was Saul?
Do you remember that Paul(formerly Saul) was the leader where Stephen was stoned? When Paul said ‘BEFORE’ where do you think he was referring to? his Future, his
present, or his past? That statement you misquote was a reference. Referring to his past. He used that to tell us his past so that we can learn from him, and also not to present himself more holy than others. That he was once persecuting churches and gospels when he was Saul of Tarsus.
He said in 3:9-11 that “(9)…for we have ‘BEFORE’ proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sins; (10)As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not
one: (11) There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God”.
PAUL WAS REFERRING TO HIS WORDS WHEN HE WAS SAUL OF TARSUS. When He was an Unbeliever. When he was persecuting the church. So Mr. Femi Aribisala, before you share
this kind of blaspheme stories against Bible and his Servants again on internet, please do proper research. Do you even remember that Paul wrote about 2/3 of the New
Testament? Why would you judge a man that wrote such volumes of books because of a statement? And you are now injecting some blaspheme statements and verses to cover
up, divert and blindfold the readers.
YOUR STATEMENT IS WHOLLY WRONG!
And remember, because some pastors that were not called are misbehaving around, doesn’t mean that genuine pastors do not exists again. If you can see the fake, it
indicates the original exists somewhere.
Thanks so much.